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Weekly Quiz #5 | General Studies (25 MCQ)

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WEEKLY QUIZ #5 GS

This Weekly Quiz is an exclusive initiative of CivilCoursify to help Aspirants Practice Quality Questions regularly. Each Quiz will have 25 Questions from different Subjects and Topics in General Studies; relevant for various Competitive Exams.

Break-up of Questions for Quiz #5

  • Polity: 5 Questions
  • Economics : 5 Questions
  • Indian Geography : 5 Questions
  • Modern History : 5 Questions
  • Environment : 5 Questions

Here are the Questions:


Q.1 Which among the following is/are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  1. Accounts and expenditure of Reserve Bank of India
  2. Accounts and expenditure of Food Corporation of India
  3. Secret Service expenditures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None of the above


Q.2 Consider the following statements with regard to enactment of the Constitution of India:

  1. On November 26, 1949, date of commencement of Constitution, the entire constitution came into force.
  2. With the commencement of Constitution, both the India Independence Act of 1947 and Government of India Act of 1935 were repealed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.3 Consider the following statements in the context of Preamble to the Constitution:

  1. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the constituent assembly of India.
  2. Indian constitution was the first constitution in world to begin with a Preamble.
  3. Preamble is a part of the Constitution and gives clarity in interpretation of the constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.4 Consider the following statements with regard to Parliament’s power to reorganise the states:

  1. Any bill contemplating the changes can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
  2. Under article 3, the Parliament’s power to diminish the areas of a state includes the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state.
  3. Any bill aiming to reorganise the states shall be passed in the parliament by a special majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None


Q.5 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Article 17 (Abolition of Untouchability)?

  1. It abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form.
  2. “Untouchability” has been defined under Article 17.
  3. It is available only against the state.
  4. It is implemented by “Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955”.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 4 only


Q.6 Cooler and more northerly latitude is preferred for growing potato because:

(a) Potato plants can withstand severe cold in the northern latitudes.

(b) Potato yield is higher in places with mean temperatures less than 10 degree Celsius.

(c) Potato is less prone to the attack of ‘blight’ in cooler and northern latitudes.

(d) None of the above


Q.7 Which of the following are classified as Tertiary activities under service sector?

  1. Trade
  2. Decision Making
  3. Policy formulation
  4. Communication

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4


Q.8 Which of the following statements are correct regarding Occupation structure of a population?

  1. Developed countries have bulk of working population in secondary and tertiary sector.
  2. Developing and underdeveloped countries have bulk of their working population in primary and Quaternary sector.

Consider the correct code from following options:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.9 Which of the following pairs of Nuclear Power Projects and its associated location is not correctly matched?

(a) Tarapur – Maharashtra

(b) Narora – Uttar Pradesh

(c) Kaiga – Karnataka

(d) Kakarapara – Tamil Nadu


Q.10 Activities that focus on the creation, re- arrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas, data interpretation and the use and evaluation of new technologies are known as:

(a) Secondary activities

(b) Quinary activities

(c) Tertiary activities

(d) Primary activities


Q.11 With reference to Delhi Proposals, 1927 consider the following statements:

  1. It was a set of demands made by Muslim leaders in response to Simon Commission Report.
  2. It demanded that there should be proportional representation according to population in Punjab and Bengal.
  3. Nehru report included all the demands raised in the Delhi proposals.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.12 Which of the following was/were the the weakness of the Ghadar movement?

  1. Its underestimation of the British’s power and its lack of adequate preparedness.
  2. Its failure to generate an effective and sustained leadership.
  3. It had a weak organisational structure.
  4. It was predominantly religious idea with leadership derived mainly from Sikh groups.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only


Q.13 Consider the following statements with regard to Kisan Sabha Movement:

  1. Members of Home Rule League played instrumental role in mobilising peasants to organise themselves into Kisan Sabha.
  2. The non-participation of high caste peasants eventually led to failure of this movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.14 Consider the following statements with regard to Swadeshi Movement:

  1. The militant nationalists wanted to restrict the movement in the Bengal unlike the Moderates.
  2. The moderates wanted to boycott only foreign goods unlike the extremists who wanted to boycott every form of cooperation with government.

Which of statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.15 Which of the following was/ were the aims of early nationalists in the 19th century?

  1. A direct struggle for the political emancipation of the country
  2. Creation of national unity
  3. Mass mobilisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only


Q.16 Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) are allowed to invest in which of the following segments of the capital market?

  1. Mutual Funds
  2. Equities
  3. Corporate Debt

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.17 Which of the following is/are the effects of New Economic Policy 1991 on Indian economy?

  1. Increase in foreign direct investment and forex reserves.
  2. Increase in public investment in agricultural infrastructure.
  3. Reduction in regional disparities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.18 Which among the following statements is/are correct about green bonds?

  1. It is an equity instrument used to raise capital to fund green projects.
  2. Private corporations cannot issue green bonds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.19 Which of the following are part of World Bank Group of which India is also a

member?

  1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
  2. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency.
  3. International Development Association.
  4. International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only


Q.20 Consider the following statements regarding Service Sector Employment.

  1. The share of services in global employment has decreased in the past decade.
  2. The percentage contribution of India’s service sector to its GDP is greater than that of China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.21 Which of the following factors have affected the regional distribution of species diversity on Earth?

  1. Frequent glaciations in the past
  2. Inclination of earth’s axis of rotation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.22 As per the Wildlife Protection Act 1972, the Chief wildlife warden may permit hunting of wildlife animals under which of the following conditions?

  1. A wild animal has become dangerous to human life.
  2. A wild animal has become diseased beyond recovery
  3. Hunting of snakes for collecting venom to prepare life saving drugs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3


Q.23 Consider the following pairs : Conference Objective

  1. Saving the Ozone Layer conference : First global conference related to the Ozone layer
  2. Helsinki conference : Revision of Montreal protocol
  3. Vienna conference : Total ban on Ozone depleting CFCs

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only


Q.24 Species inventory is the number of plant and animal species recorded so far. Consider the following statements regarding Species inventories:

  1. Number of plant species is more than the animal species.
  2. Insects species constitute the largest percentage among the animal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Q.25 Which of the following is/are the micronutrients required for plants?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Boron
  3. Sulphur
  4. Manganese

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only


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